I’m certainly no constitutional law scholar. I hate to admit it, but the only time a SCOTUS decision gets my attention these days is if it directly affects my practice area. Such is life.
But I do remember a thing or two from law school. And more importantly, I know how to read the English language, which seems to be a most underrated skill when it comes to constitutional interpretation.
So, here goes: I got into an interesting exchange with a thoughtful reader in the comments on my post on convicted felons and guns. I started that post with the premise (an admission really) that there is by necessity a balance between the government’s right to regulate the manner in which the people keep and bear arms and the right of the people to keep and bear said arms. My thoughtful reader opined that, in fact, the government has no power regulate the people in such a manner. Although I took some issue with his position, he certainly called me out on a key point that I conveniently left out of the discussion: the federal government has a very tenuous claim on the authority to regulate private firearms in this country.
Caveat: (for you 1L conlaw students out there) I am at least dimly familiar with
M’Culloch v. Maryland and such concepts as the "affectation doctrine". So don’t write me and tell me why I’m wrong. What follows is my personal opinion of what the Constitution
really means. This isn’t a courtroom and no one reading this blog is bound to base his or her opinion on
stare decisis.
We have to follow the law, but we never have to agree with it.
We should start with the premise that the Framers started with:
the federal government is a government of limited powers. When the Framers nervously embarked on the formation of a federal government, they realized that they formed this potential monster at the expense of the sovereign powers of their own state governments. Thus, they insisted on a written constitution (ironically) so no one could go back and "reinterpret" the agreement. And, they insisted that the federal government be strictly circumscribed so that it could only exercise such powers as were explicitly delegated by the Constitution. Finally, as an additional assurance that this principle would be respected, the Framers expressly reserved all powers not delegated to the federal government "to the States respectively, or to the people". U.S. Const. amend. X.
This is such a simple concept, really. It has only been complicated over the years by those who wish to avoid it.
So, where in the Constitution does it say that the federal government has the authority to regulate the private use and private ownership of firearms? Article 1, Section 8 of the Constitution states:
The Congress shall have power to lay and collect taxes, duties, imposts and excises, to pay the debts and provide for the common defense and general welfare of the United States; but all duties, imposts and excises shall be uniform throughout the United States;
To borrow money on the credit of the United States;
To regulate commerce with foreign nations, and among the several states, and with the Indian tribes;
To establish a uniform rule of naturalization, and uniform laws on the subject of bankruptcies throughout the United States;
To coin money, regulate the value thereof, and of foreign coin, and fix the standard of weights and measures;
To provide for the punishment of counterfeiting the securities and current coin of the United States;
To establish post offices and post roads;
To promote the progress of science and useful arts, by securing for limited times to authors and inventors the exclusive right to their respective writings and discoveries;
To constitute tribunals inferior to the Supreme Court;
To define and punish piracies and felonies committed on the high seas, and offenses against the law of nations;
To declare war, grant letters of marque and reprisal, and make rules concerning captures on land and water;
To raise and support armies, but no appropriation of money to that use shall be for a longer term than two years;
To provide and maintain a navy;
To make rules for the government and regulation of the land and naval forces;
To provide for calling forth the militia to execute the laws of the union, suppress insurrections and repel invasions;
To provide for organizing, arming, and disciplining, the militia, and for governing such part of them as may be employed in the service of the United States, reserving to the states respectively, the appointment of the officers, and the authority of training the militia according to the discipline prescribed by Congress;
To exercise exclusive legislation in all cases whatsoever, over such District (not exceeding ten miles square) as may, by cession of particular states, and the acceptance of Congress, become the seat of the government of the United States, and to exercise like authority over all places purchased by the consent of the legislature of the state in which the same shall be, for the erection of forts, magazines, arsenals, dockyards, and other needful buildings;--And
To make all laws which shall be
necessary and proper for carrying into execution the foregoing powers, and all other powers vested by this Constitution in the government of the United States, or in any department or officer thereof.
Folks, that’s pretty much it. Now, one could certainly argue that Art. 1, § 8 gives the federal government the authority "to make all laws which shall be
necessary and proper" to provide arms to the militia, to discipline the militia, and, when the militia is called up, to govern the militia. But I just don’t see how any of these powers justifies such atrocities as the Lautenberg Amendment or the now defunct ban on so called "assault weapons".
Call me what you will, but I think the federal government has very little constitutional authority to regulate the private ownership of firearms in this country. And guess what, if the feds don’t have it, the power is reserved "to the States respectively, or to the people".
State gun laws are another post for another time.